Best Trade Solution

dear sir,

we are here having a debate. if a credit calls for a signed commercial invoice and the presented on shows a signature without any stamp or mark or any clue of who is signing it, will it comply? some of us do think that the some sort of mark proving ,that it is from the beneficiary, is required.

ISBP may be useful in this situation, particularly art.40. However, as long as you decided that such invoice comply otherwise (i.e issued by beneficiary) it is a common sense that signature on that invoice (meaning certifying the statements on the invoice) is made by beneficiary. However it is a pure theoretical point of view. Practice shows that some invoices (particularly domestic ones) have been COUNTERSIGNED by the applicant (recognizing his obligation/debt under that invoice). So, it is difficult to give a correct answer without seeing the document in question.